Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>]

Karl:
>When people are diglossic between a language and a dialect
thereof, grammar is almost always almost identical between the dialect and
the “high” language. That situation does not exist between Biblical Hebrew
and modern Israeli.>

While I don't think that modern Hebrew was an ancient dialect (!),
this comment about the nature of diglossiai is not true.

Arabic is one of the 'classic' example languages of diglossia and the
grammar is "quite different".
Arabic 'prefix-tense' has 'b-' prefixes, something non-existent in the
high language.
In colloquial Arabics, the case-endings are not pronounced,
the modal endings on verbs are not pronounced,
accusative adjectival plurals are used for nominatives.

A diglossic situation existed between BH and Mishnaic Hebrew,
which also show differences in the grammar:
a dropping of the vav-ha-hippux verbs,
dropping of asher
new binyanim like 'nitpa`el'.
new vocabulary developments, including the shifting of some
verbs from one binyan to another.

For Isaac:
grammar says: yitpos,
people say yitfos.

I take that as a weakening in the phnomeic structure of the modern
language.
In any case, Isaac,
what do you do with the second Temple development of
mishaic Hebrew?
People even said 'adan' for 'adam'/person.




-- 
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicallanguagecenter.com
Biblical Language Center
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