Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Ted:

On Tue, Dec 21, 2010 at 4:21 PM, Ted Walther <ted AT reactor-core.org> wrote:

> On Fri, Dec 10, 2010 at 02:22:29PM -0800, K Randolph wrote:
>
>> Can you give one ancient written example of proto-Semitic? If not, why
>> should
>> we treat it as anything more than a made up language based on a theory
>> that
>> could very well be wrong in many ways? Including the so-called ayin/ghayin
>> split (which apparently exists for Arabic, but did it ever for Biblical
>> Hebrew?)?
>>
>
> Accepting the ayin/ghayin split gave me better understanding of the word
> "ivrit" and its dual meanings.


What dual meanings?

The basic verb means “to pass (by, to, through, beyond)” used in many
contexts. In the hitpael, i.e. reflexive, use, we see the action of passing
by or beyond oneself, in the context of passing by or beyond one’s patience,
an almost identical idea as in English “to be beside oneself in exasperation
and/or fury”.

The noun עברה (BRH is used in two contexts: a shallow place in a river where
one can pass through a river to the other side, i.e. a ford; most commonly
in the context of where one has passed beyond his patience and has strong
emotions.

I see one action, in many different contexts. So what dual meanings?


> …  I know not everyone agrees with Edenics, but I found it it a fascinating
> link.
>

I found it interesting, but largely irrelevant in that it is too close, if
not passing into, the etymological fallacy.

>
> Ted
>
> Karl W. Randolph.