Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Uri:

Can you give one ancient written example of proto-Semitic? If not, why
should we treat it as anything more than a made up language based on a
 theory that could very well be wrong in many ways? Including the so-called
ayin/ghayin split (which apparently exists for Arabic, but did it ever for
Biblical Hebrew?)?

Karl W. Randolph.

On Thu, Dec 9, 2010 at 7:41 PM, Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com> wrote:

>
>  Sorry, these are two different roots. The first is
>  indeed (LM.
>   The second is derived from the root GHayin LM.
>  The proto-Semitic Ghayin was written already in the
>  ancient paleo-Hebrew script with the same letter that
>  served the letter (YIN.
>
>  Compare the name of the city (azah. To this day
>  the ancient pronounciation is preserved in the English
>  spelling Ghaza, and, of course, in normal Arabic
>  spoken and written use where it retains a separate letter.
>
>    Uri Hurwitz                              Greay Neck, NY
>
>
>
>
>
> As I have already observed the word OLAM ( עולם ) is of the root
> (LM ( עלם ), which certainly can not mean 'hidden, secrete,
> conceal'. To wit: this is also the root of ELEM and ALMAH ( עלם,
> עלמה ), 'young adults', which are not hidden, and have nothing to
> hide.
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>
>
>
>
>
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