Biblical Hebrew Forum

[TedBro AT aol.com]

Randall:
 
I'm initially skeptical but open to look at evidence of semitisms in the  
Gospels. One early question is whether "koine" Greek, as a spoken, living, 
first  century "language" contained semitisms. In other words, when Semitic  
Peoples learned Greek, did elements (vocabulary, idiom, syntax) of their  
ancestoral tongue bleed into the new language? If so, the presence of semitic 
 
traces in the NT text may not indicate a Hebrew or Aramaic Vorlage.
 
Make sense?
 
-Ted Brownstein
 
 
In a message dated 10/17/2010 2:47:18 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
randallbuth AT gmail.com writes:

One  needs to distinguish sources, translated into Greek and possibly
used by  gospel writers from the gospel writers themselves.
Linguistic evidence in  gospels does point to Semitisms, and
specifically a Hebrew narrative (note  Aramaic) behind Mark and Luke.
Perhaps produced by Jerusalem church before  the canonical gospels,
like Qumran community that chose Hebrew, and perhaps  behind the Papias
statement, too.

Randall  Buth