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  • From: "Jack Kilmon" <jkilmon AT historian.net>
  • To: <TedBro AT aol.com>, <randallbuth AT gmail.com>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah
  • Date: Sun, 17 Oct 2010 11:06:55 -0500

Aramaic syntactical features influence the Greek of the Gospels throughout,. These features include verbs at beginning of sentences. joined clauses without conjunctions, parataxis, asyndeta and the use of KAI where Aramaic source materials (probably Aramaic notes) had waw consecutives. In the case of Mark, the Latinisms are because this Aramaic speaking author, writing in Greek, is writing in Rome,
or Italy, for a Latin speaking readership. The reference to the woman in Tyre as "a Greek, racially a Syro-Phoenician.." ἦν δὲ ἡ γυνὴ Ἑλληνίς Συροφοινίσσα τῷ γένει was written for Romans.

I recommend:
Joseph Fitzmyer, The Semitic Background of the New Testament, Eerdmans
Matthew Black, An Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts. Oxford University Press
Maurice Casey, An Aramaic Approach to Q. Sources for the Gospels of Matthew and Luke. 2002, Society for New Testament Studies'
Maurice Casey, Aramaic Sources of Mark's Gospel, 1998, Society for New Testament Studies.
Maurice Casey, coming in December 2010 https://www.eisenbrauns.com/ECOM/_3200P5B6Z.HTM

Maurice is currently conducting a colloqium on Jim West's "Biblical-Studies" group.

Jack Kilmon

--------------------------------------------------
From: <TedBro AT aol.com>
Sent: Sunday, October 17, 2010 8:25 AM
To: <randallbuth AT gmail.com>; <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah

Randall:

I'm initially skeptical but open to look at evidence of semitisms in the
Gospels. One early question is whether "koine" Greek, as a spoken, living,
first century "language" contained semitisms. In other words, when Semitic
Peoples learned Greek, did elements (vocabulary, idiom, syntax) of their
ancestoral tongue bleed into the new language? If so, the presence of semitic
traces in the NT text may not indicate a Hebrew or Aramaic Vorlage.

Make sense?

-Ted Brownstein


In a message dated 10/17/2010 2:47:18 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
randallbuth AT gmail.com writes:

One needs to distinguish sources, translated into Greek and possibly
used by gospel writers from the gospel writers themselves.
Linguistic evidence in gospels does point to Semitisms, and
specifically a Hebrew narrative (note Aramaic) behind Mark and Luke.
Perhaps produced by Jerusalem church before the canonical gospels,
like Qumran community that chose Hebrew, and perhaps behind the Papias
statement, too.

Randall Buth


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