Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Isaiah 61:1 appears in classical hebrew format.

A. An introductory clause: "spirit of Lord of me on me because:"

B. followed by a couplet in parallel: (i) "He annoints me to bear tidings to
afflicted ones; and (ii) He sends me to bind up ones being broken of heart;"

C. followed by a couplet in parallel: (i) "to proclaim to ones being
captive, liberty; and (ii) to ones being bound, opening."

The subsequent, septuagint, greek, translation, in its wisdom, alters the
original hebrew and changes clause "C(ii)" to: "to the blind, recovery of
sight."

The subsequent, greek, translation of the original hebrew new testament in
luke 4:18 then proceeds to further change the hebrew by: (1.) retaining the
septuagint old testament, new clause "C(ii);" (2.) deleting clause "B(ii);"
and adding another new clause "C(iii):" "to send to ones being oppressed a
release."

With the symmetry, balance and substance lost in and by the hellenization of
the hebrew new testament, a question arises. Why is the hebrew new testament
discussed not here? Does the opinion continue to hold sway that the new
testament orginally authored in greek?

regards,

fred burlingame