Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Dear Doug,

While we've had this discussion before, let's just remember that Jesus did 
not write any part of the NT. He probably did speak Hebrew and Aramaic and 
used the Hebrew and Aramaic names for God that Jews were using at the time. 
As far as we know, by that time Jews were already avoiding pronouncing the 
tetragrammaton, usually reading "Adonai". The writers of the NT such as Paul 
used Kurios as a translation of Adonai, best rendered in English as "Lord". I 
won't get into "Jehovah" and the like, but modern scholars' using Yahweh etc. 
certainly represents a break with tradition.


Yigal Levin

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Doug Belot" <dbelot AT bigpond.net.au>
To: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>; <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, October 16, 2010 2:08 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah


> This is an interesting admission , if this is so , that the NT was
> originally in Greek , and we know that the tetragrammaton was considered by
> Jesus and Luke and Paul to be best written as Kupiou , why do you think
> later scholars prempted those obviously better scholars than any of us by
> ignoring the teaching of Jesus and Paul and bringing in confusion such as
> YHWH , if Jesus was writing Kupioz , and Paul was writing Kupioz , why dont
> we all follow their pattern.
>
> Do we think we know more than they.
>
> doug belot
>
>
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Sunday, October 17, 2010 5:47 AM
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah
>
>
> > Dear Fred,
> >
> > In short, yes. The vast majority of scholars believe that most, if not
> > all,
> > of the NT was originally written in Greek, within a Greek-speaking Jewish
> > and non-Jewish milieu. But even if parts were written in either Hebrew or
> > Aramaic, the original texts have been lost. Since the best we have in hand
> > is translations from the Greek into Hebrew or Aramaic, all we would be
> > able
> > to discuss is why the translators used this word or another.
> >
> >
> > Yigal Levin
> >
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> > [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of fred burlingame
> > Sent: Saturday, October 16, 2010 5:47 PM
> > To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> > Subject: [b-hebrew] the hellenization of isaiah
> >
> > Isaiah 61:1 appears in classical hebrew format.
> >
> > A. An introductory clause: "spirit of Lord of me on me because:"
> >
> > B. followed by a couplet in parallel: (i) "He annoints me to bear tidings
> > to
> > afflicted ones; and (ii) He sends me to bind up ones being broken of
> > heart;"
> >
> > C. followed by a couplet in parallel: (i) "to proclaim to ones being
> > captive, liberty; and (ii) to ones being bound, opening."
> >
> > The subsequent, septuagint, greek, translation, in its wisdom, alters the
> > original hebrew and changes clause "C(ii)" to: "to the blind, recovery of
> > sight."
> >
> > The subsequent, greek, translation of the original hebrew new testament in
> > luke 4:18 then proceeds to further change the hebrew by: (1.) retaining
> > the
> > septuagint old testament, new clause "C(ii);" (2.) deleting clause
> > "B(ii);"
> > and adding another new clause "C(iii):" "to send to ones being oppressed a
> > release."
> >
> > With the symmetry, balance and substance lost in and by the hellenization
> > of
> > the hebrew new testament, a question arises. Why is the hebrew new
> > testament
> > discussed not here? Does the opinion continue to hold sway that the new
> > testament orginally authored in greek?
> >
> > regards,
> >
> > fred burlingame
> > _______________________________________________
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> >
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>
>
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