Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Christian <jc.bhebrew AT googlemail.com>]

Homer has nothing to do with this. We are talking about a Hebrew document
written in Hebrew for Hebrews about *the* Salt Sea not *a* salt sea.

James Christian

On 13 May 2010 15:06, <jimstinehart AT aol.com> wrote:

>    James Christian:
>
> It would help everyone if you would use your knowledge of Greek to let us
> know if Homer referred to the Mediterranean Sea as being a "salt sea".  The
> first thing I came to on the Internet is set forth below.  The phrase at the
> end (in English translation) is "the salt sea water".  Isn't that referring
> to the water of the Mediterranean Sea?  Or perhaps the waters of the oceans
> generally, of which the Mediterranean Sea was a part?
>     "Next we began to sail up the narrow strait lamenting. For on the one
> hand lay Scylla, and on the other mighty Charybdis in terrible wise sucked
> down the salt sea water."
>
> On a more general level, didn't the Greeks refer to the Mediterranean Sea
> as "the salt sea"?  If you concede that point, I won't look any farther, but
> if you deny it, I'll keep on digging.
>
> My own understanding is that most people in the ancient world who lived
> near the Mediterranean Sea, other than the Egyptians, often referred to the
> Mediterranean Sea as "the salt sea".  Maybe we could start with the Greeks,
> and then work our way farther east and back in time.  Terminology at Ugarit
> will be particularly important.
>
> On the other hand, I myself know of no document in the secular history of
> the ancient world that refers to the Dead Sea as being "sea the salt" or
> "the salt sea".  Do such references exist in the secular history of the
> ancient world?
>
> You keep on saying that "sea the salt" could not possibly be referring to
> the Mediterranean Sea.  Are there any written documents from the secular
> history of the ancient world that support that key contention of yours?
>
> Jim Stinehart
> Evanston, Illinois
>