Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Pere Porta
> Sent: Sunday, December 13, 2009 11:39 PM
> To: steve AT voiceinwilderness.info
> Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] adonai "my Lord" or "the Lord"
> 
>  (SM) Why is the the word adonai with a kamatz under the nun translated as
> "the
> Lord" and not "my Lord" in Ps 22:31 (as well as most other places)?
> The word has the 1st person singular suffix.
> The only exception I have seen is Goldingay, who translates it as "my
> Lord".
> (PP)
> Strictly speaking the word in Ps 22:31 means "my lords".
> Look here: www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t0705p.html
> For "my lord" -------> Gn 31:35 (7th word)
> Look at www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t0702.html
> 
> But in order to distinguish divine reference from human, Massoretes often
> used this plural ending to say "(the) Lord" (= God): the plural ending is
> an
> intensive plural of rank and no more a suffix meaning "my".
> This is called the "plural of majesty".
> Even today "We" is sometimes used by rank persons (kings, the Pope...:
> "*nos
> *" -the Latin for "we" or "us"-...) who strictly speaking are an
> individual
> and not a collective.
> 
> 
> (SM) Why is the same word in Ps 16:2 universally translated as "my Lord"?
> (PP)
> Because the sense requires this translation "my Lord" though the strict
> meaning is again "my lords".
> Someone addresses to Yahweh and says to him: "You are my Lord". "You are
> my
> Lord*s*" would not make sense.
> 
> Do you agree?
> 
> Sincerely,
> 
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
> 
[Steve Miller] Pere, thanks for sharing that. I did not know it. Yes, I
agree. Translating it as "Lords" would not make sense. 

I still have the question about "my". The yod suffix makes it "my Lord"
rather than just "Lord". The yod was not added by the Masoretes. Why then is
it not always translated "my Lord"? It seems to me that "my Lord" would fit
just about all uses. But it is only translated "my Lord" in few places, like
in Ps 16:2 where the context almost demands it. Even the LXX rarely
translates it as "my Lord".

But if the word was written, adoni, with a chirik instead of a kamatz under
the nun, then it would be consistently translated, my lord.

Sincerely,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info
They shall come, and they shall declare
to a people to be born,
reveal His righteousness.
This deed which the Lord has done
they'll retell to everyone
that He may all peoples bless. (Psalm 22:31)