Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

Why is the the word adonai with a kamatz under the nun translated as "the
Lord" and not "my Lord" in Ps 22:31 (as well as most other places)? 

 

The word has the 1st person singular suffix.

 

The only exception I have seen is Goldingay, who translates it as "my Lord".


 

Why is the same word in Ps 16:2 universally translated as "my Lord"?

 

Thank you.

 

Sincerely,

-Steve Miller

www.voiceInWilderness.info

All of the fat upon the earth,
they shall bow down before Him,
all that descend to dust.
And there's none can keep alive
None can save his own soul life.
All must in the Lord's work trust. (Psalm 22:29)