Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

 (SM) Why is the the word adonai with a kamatz under the nun translated as
"the
Lord" and not "my Lord" in Ps 22:31 (as well as most other places)?
The word has the 1st person singular suffix.
The only exception I have seen is Goldingay, who translates it as "my Lord".
(PP)
Strictly speaking the word in Ps 22:31 means "my lords".
Look here: www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t0705p.html
For "my lord" -------> Gn 31:35 (7th word)
Look at www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t0702.html

But in order to distinguish divine reference from human, Massoretes often
used this plural ending to say "(the) Lord" (= God): the plural ending is an
intensive plural of rank and no more a suffix meaning "my".
This is called the "plural of majesty".
Even today "We" is sometimes used by rank persons (kings, the Pope...: "*nos
*" -the Latin for "we" or "us"-...) who strictly speaking are an individual
and not a collective.


(SM) Why is the same word in Ps 16:2 universally translated as "my Lord"?
(PP)
Because the sense requires this translation "my Lord" though the strict
meaning is again "my lords".
Someone addresses to Yahweh and says to him: "You are my Lord". "You are my
Lord*s*" would not make sense.

Do you agree?

Sincerely,

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)


www.voiceInWilderness.info <http://www.voiceinwilderness.info/>

All of the fat upon the earth,
they shall bow down before Him,
all that descend to dust.
And there's none can keep alive
None can save his own soul life.
All must in the Lord's work trust. (Psalm 22:29)



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-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)