Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>]

Of course they are semantically different. They represent completely  
different kinds of motion. But the question is whether they have any  
semantic elements which are uncancellable.

i.e.

1) Can an object only fall downwards?
2) Can an object only sink downwards?
3) Can a flying object only land on a solid object?

Another example we could throw out for discussion:

4) He was crawling on his feet but not on his hands. This he learned,  
of course, after toddling on hands and knees.

James Christian


Quoting David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>:

> > > I think you may notice that you've changed lexemes, thus different
> > > semantics involved.
> >
> > No real big difference. All of my examples have verbs of motion with an
> > adverbial phrase that contradicts the semantics of the verbs of motion.
> > The only difference is that you used a single adverbial word whereas I
> > used an adverbial phrase.
>
> Hi James,
>
> I would strongly dispute that. Semantically, there is a big difference
> between "plod" and "fall".
>
> Regards,
> David Kummerow.
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