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  • From: "Kevin Riley" <klriley AT alphalink.com.au>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] XBR vs. ubburu: Hebron
  • Date: Sat, 21 Feb 2009 09:58:52 +1100 (AUS Eastern Daylight Time)

The Egyptians did not distinguish between R and L for the same reason the
Japanese, and most Pacific languages, don't: the distinction does not exist
in their language and so is not found in their orthographies. The Semitic
people consistently do distinguish between the two. You need to show that
there is a general confusion in common words for these two sounds, something
that every semiticist so far seems to have missed. Where is the evidence
that L and R interchange within West Semitic? The Egyptians came to write
RW for L because the difference mattered to Greeks, who at that time were
important people in Egypt.

Kevin Riley

-------Original Message-------

From: JimStinehart AT aol.com
Date: 21/02/2009 8:07:36 AM


1. Thutmosis III List

In the sentence of mine that you quoted, I explicitly stated that on the
Mid-15th century BCE Thutmosis III list, the Egyptian scribes wrote down
Egyptian
R for either west Semitic lamed/L or west Semitic resh/R. There is no
Distinction at all between R and L on the Tuthmosis III list. I don’t see
how anyone
Could have been confused about that. That’s exactly what I said.

Yet later, Egyptians sometimes referenced an L. Here is how Kelley L. Ross,
Ph.D., explains this phenomenon:
“Usually Egyptians just pronounced foreign l's as r's. When Greek names,
like
"Ptolemaios" or "Kleopatra," were later transcribed, the biliteral sign rw
Was used for "l".”

To me, that suggests that in the Late Bronze Age, the Egyptians could not
Distinguish between west Semitic lamed/L or west Semitic resh/R, because the

Sounds were so very similar in the Late Bronze Age. Note that the Thutmosis
III
List consistently distinguishes qof/Q vs. Kaf/K, and also distinguishes
between
Two different kinds of Semitic heths, so I don’t see general sloppiness as
Being the issue here.

Since the language of the Canaanites and early Hebrews was to such a great
Extent oral, it seems logical to me that Semitic words that are only
Distinguished in writing by resh/R vs. Lamed/L could easily have been viewed
by the early
Hebrews, and by other west Semitic speakers in Canaan in the Late Bronze Age

As being related, if not being the same word.





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