Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

John:

On Sat, Jan 10, 2009 at 4:00 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:

>  The <M> in 1Chr 4:10,16 is a prefixed <M> coming from the lemma <MIN>, why
> do you think this is a participle?
> The same is true for Eze 27:19,3 and Gen 38:24.
> So again, why are are you saying they are participles?
>
> I already answered that: context. I have said that so often that I didn't
think I needed to make it explicit in this answer.


> You stated:
>
> Another thing I was expecting from your question is to find -M- in the
> middle of a word, following another prefix: except for the two that were the
> subject of your original question, none of the examples you listed fit. They
> were all at the beginning of the words.
>
>
> If you read the message to which I was responding, ...
>

All you needed to say was "You misunderstood me." Furthermore, my
expectation was based on your original question, not a response.

...
>
> What I would like to heard from the board are those who think the two words
> originally given in this thread:
>
> 1chr 15:13 - word 2: <L:/MA/B.F/RI)$OWNFH>
> 2ch 30:3 - word 11: <L:/MA/D.AY
>
> Should be considered as a pronoun, based on the lemma <MFH>, as myself I
> feel it would be a preposition based on the lemma <MIN>.
>
I would like to see that too. I suspect the answer will be pointing and/or
tradition.

>
>
> B"H
> John
>

Karl W. Randolph.