Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

K Randolph wrote:
> John:
>
> On Mon, Jan 12, 2009 at 12:44 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com 
> <mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com>> wrote:
>
>     K Randolph wrote:
> >     John:
> >
> >     On Sat, Jan 10, 2009 at 4:00 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> 
> > <mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:
> >
> >       
> > >      The <M> in 1Chr 4:10,16 is a prefixed <M> coming from the lemma <MIN>, 
> > > why
> > >     do you think this is a participle?
> > >     The same is true for Eze 27:19,3 and Gen 38:24.
> > >     So again, why are are you saying they are participles?
> > >
> > >     I already answered that: context. I have said that so often that I didn't
> > >         
> >     think I needed to make it explicit in this answer.
> >       
>     Actually please do, as according to WTS those <M> are prefixed
>     prepositions, not participles. So if you believe they are
>     participles please give your rationale.
>
> OK, let's get this out of the way first: why do you think they are not 
> participles? Please give me your rationale.
>
> Remember, as I have repeatedly said, the points that the Masoretes 
> bestowed on us are sometimes wrong as far as meaning is concerned, so 
> explain it on the basis of an unpointed text.

I already said why: because according to WTS (Westminster Theological 
Seminary - the people who maintain the WLC and MORPH) they are not 
participles, but are rather prefixed prepositions.
Now I'm sure there are some errors here and there, but for them to have 
thousands of them all on the exact same thing seems kind of unlikely - 
hence me asking what your rationale is for holding the opposite view.

So I told you my rationale, now please tell yours.

B"H
John Steven