Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Mem in the Middle of the Word

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Mem in the Middle of the Word
  • Date: Mon, 12 Jan 2009 19:15:54 -0500

K Randolph wrote:
John:

On Mon, Jan 12, 2009 at 12:44 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com <mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com>> wrote:

K Randolph wrote:
John:

On Sat, Jan 10, 2009 at 4:00 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
<mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:

The <M> in 1Chr 4:10,16 is a prefixed <M> coming from the lemma <MIN>,
why
do you think this is a participle?
The same is true for Eze 27:19,3 and Gen 38:24.
So again, why are are you saying they are participles?

I already answered that: context. I have said that so often that I didn't
think I needed to make it explicit in this answer.
Actually please do, as according to WTS those <M> are prefixed
prepositions, not participles. So if you believe they are
participles please give your rationale.

OK, let's get this out of the way first: why do you think they are not participles? Please give me your rationale.

Remember, as I have repeatedly said, the points that the Masoretes bestowed on us are sometimes wrong as far as meaning is concerned, so explain it on the basis of an unpointed text.

I already said why: because according to WTS (Westminster Theological Seminary - the people who maintain the WLC and MORPH) they are not participles, but are rather prefixed prepositions.
Now I'm sure there are some errors here and there, but for them to have thousands of them all on the exact same thing seems kind of unlikely - hence me asking what your rationale is for holding the opposite view.

So I told you my rationale, now please tell yours.

B"H
John Steven




Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page