Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

John:

On Tue, Jan 6, 2009 at 8:22 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:

>  I did an analysis of the WLC text, and came up with the following stats:
>
> .....
> So I ask my question again, why do some people have these two as an affixed
> pronoun?
>
>
> B"H
> John Steven
>

Thanks for the analysis. I found I disagreed with most of it (or else
misunderstood it).

The 1 Chronicles 15:13 verse appears to be a contraction of MN.

2 Chronicles 30:3 the contraction of MN makes the most sense, though
awkward.

I think it has something to do with the vocalization preserved by the
Masoretes, and I'm not going to argue where theirs came from.

Karl W. Randolph.