Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

K Randolph wrote:
> John:
>
> On Sat, Jan 10, 2009 at 4:00 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:
>
>   
> >  The <M> in 1Chr 4:10,16 is a prefixed <M> coming from the lemma <MIN>, why
> > do you think this is a participle?
> > The same is true for Eze 27:19,3 and Gen 38:24.
> > So again, why are are you saying they are participles?
> >
> > I already answered that: context. I have said that so often that I didn't
> >     
> think I needed to make it explicit in this answer.
>   
Actually please do, as according to WTS those <M> are prefixed 
prepositions, not participles. So if you believe they are participles 
please give your rationale.

> > You stated:
> >
> > Another thing I was expecting from your question is to find -M- in the
> > middle of a word, following another prefix: except for the two that were the
> > subject of your original question, none of the examples you listed fit. They
> > were all at the beginning of the words.
> >
> >
> > If you read the message to which I was responding, ...
> >
> >     
>
> All you needed to say was "You misunderstood me." Furthermore, my
> expectation was based on your original question, not a response.
>
> ...
>   
For me to just say that would be ambiguous, hence the explanation. I did 
this since you were expecting something from the report that was not 
within the purpose of the report.


> > What I would like to heard from the board are those who think the two words
> > originally given in this thread:
> >
> > 1chr 15:13 - word 2: <L:/MA/B.F/RI)$OWNFH>
> > 2ch 30:3 - word 11: <L:/MA/D.AY
> >
> > Should be considered as a pronoun, based on the lemma <MFH>, as myself I
> > feel it would be a preposition based on the lemma <MIN>.
> >
> >     
> I would like to see that too. I suspect the answer will be pointing and/or
> tradition
Hopefully we will hear something soon.

B"H
John Steven