Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

John:

On Mon, Jan 12, 2009 at 12:44 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:

>  K Randolph wrote:
>
> John:
>
> On Sat, Jan 10, 2009 at 4:00 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> <Brak AT neo.rr.com> 
> wrote:
>
>
>
>   The <M> in 1Chr 4:10,16 is a prefixed <M> coming from the lemma <MIN>, why
> do you think this is a participle?
> The same is true for Eze 27:19,3 and Gen 38:24.
> So again, why are are you saying they are participles?
>
> I already answered that: context. I have said that so often that I didn't
>
>
>  think I needed to make it explicit in this answer.
>
>
>  Actually please do, as according to WTS those <M> are prefixed
> prepositions, not participles. So if you believe they are participles please
> give your rationale.
>
OK, let's get this out of the way first: why do you think they are not
participles? Please give me your rationale.

Remember, as I have repeatedly said, the points that the Masoretes bestowed
on us are sometimes wrong as far as meaning is concerned, so explain it on
the basis of an unpointed text.


> ....
>
> B"H
> John Steven
>

Karl W. Randolph.