Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

> 
> Strangely, there are a couple of instances in the siddur in which the same
> mistake is made, and I've always been curious about it and never asked. It
> says in the evening prayer right after recitation of the Shema:
> 
> אמת ואמונה כל זאת וקיים עלינו, כי הוא ה׳ אלוהינו ואין זולתו, ואנחנו ישראל
> עמו. *הפודנו* מיד מלכים וגו׳
> 
> )MT W)MWNH KL Z)T WQYYM (LYNW KY HW) H' )LWHYNW W)YN ZWLTW, W)NXNW Y&R)L
> (MW. *HPWDNW* MYD MLKYM WGW'
> 
> The question would, then, be as to why it says הפודנו HPWDNW instead of
> פודנו PWDNW, without the article. Does this violate the rules of the
> formation of the suffixed state of a noun, or is it acceptable under some
> other rule?

It's an "article" which _functions_ as a relative particle (one could
read there ש or אשר instead).

See e.g. 2Chr 29:36, Ezr 10:14, Josh 10:24 (where it is used with
a verbal form!).

P.T.

-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz
SIP: butrus AT ekiga.net