Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jason Hare" <jaihare AT gmail.com>]

2008/12/14 Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
>
> On Sun, Dec 14, 2008 at 9:27 AM, Jason Hare wrote:
>
> > אמת ואמונה כל זאת וקיים עלינו, כי הוא ה׳ אלוהינו ואין זולתו, ואנחנו ישראל
> > עמו. *הפודנו* מיד מלכים וגו׳
> >
> > )MT W)MWNH KL Z)T WQYYM (LYNW KY HW) H' )LWHYNW W)YN ZWLTW, W)NXNW Y&R)L
> > (MW. *HPWDNW* MYD MLKYM WGW'
> >
> > The question would, then, be as to why it says הפודנו HPWDNW instead of
> > פודנו PWDNW, without the article. Does this violate the rules of the
> > formation of the suffixed state of a noun, or is it acceptable under some
> > other rule?
>
> This is not a noun.  It is a participle (Hebrew benoni).
>
> Yitzhak Sapir

So, you're saying that it's not a substantive? Participles behaving as
nouns function the same when it comes to affixes, do they not? I agree
that it's not technically a "noun," but it functions substantively. I
would still expect פודנו PWDNW (podénu) from פודה PWDH (podeh) in the
same way as I expect (and see) גומלני GWMLNY (gomléni) from גומל GWML
(gomel), which is not found with a heh yediah prefix (at least in the
siddur that I use).

בכבוד רב
Jason Hare
Rehovot, Israel