Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Sun, Dec 14, 2008 at 03:50:16PM +0200, Jason Hare wrote:
> 2008/12/14 Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
> >
> > On Sun, Dec 14, 2008 at 9:27 AM, Jason Hare wrote:
> >
> > > אמת ואמונה כל זאת וקיים עלינו, כי הוא ה׳ אלוהינו ואין זולתו, ואנחנו 
> > > ישראל
> > > עמו. *הפודנו* מיד מלכים וגו׳
> > >
> > > )MT W)MWNH KL Z)T WQYYM (LYNW KY HW) H' )LWHYNW W)YN ZWLTW, W)NXNW Y&R)L
> > > (MW. *HPWDNW* MYD MLKYM WGW'
> > >
> > > The question would, then, be as to why it says הפודנו HPWDNW instead of
> > > פודנו PWDNW, without the article. Does this violate the rules of the
> > > formation of the suffixed state of a noun, or is it acceptable under 
> > > some
> > > other rule?
> >
> > This is not a noun.  It is a participle (Hebrew benoni).
> >
> > Yitzhak Sapir
> 
> So, you're saying that it's not a substantive? Participles behaving as

It is substantive, but a) the article isn't a real article, but a 
relative-particle,
b) the suffix marks an object here (like with a verb) and not a possesive 
pronoun.

P.T.

-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz
SIP: butrus AT ekiga.net