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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: kjv_gods_word AT yahoo.com
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] virgin vs. young woman
  • Date: Mon, 9 Jul 2007 22:57:42 -0400

Jim,

You may be right but what you say is not relevant any more since no number of ALAMOT who have lost their head in an intense romantic situation opt nowadays for the simple medical procedure of virginity restoration.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Jul 9, 2007, at 6:47 PM, Rev. Jim Cunningham wrote:

Hi,

I'm new here and I just read your posts. I've always considered the issue of virgin vs young woman an interesting and important issue.

The Hebrew word used was Alma in the Old Testament, as you know. As a Jew I can tell you that it does not simply mean "young woman", although it is describing a young woman. Alma specifically means a maiden or damsel - a young woman who has not been married/sexually touched. There is no such thing as an "alma" who has had sex. She ceases to be alma after sexual intercourse. Therefore, though "virgin" is not the strict definition of alma, "alma" does most certainly and emphatically refer to a virgin young woman. Besides this, the point of the verse in question declares that this pregnancy is a "sign", and the verse itself is a prophecy of that pregnancy and birth. "Young women" give birth all the time. There is no sign or miracle in that. "Unmarried young women" also give birth all the time, so there is no miracle in that either. The focus of the verse is that a miracle will take place, a sign - a sexually untouched "maiden" girl will conceive and give birth to Immanuel.
The New Testament writers, when quoting this verse, specifically used the Greek word "parthenos" - a virgin (we see this word in use with the Parthenon, referring to a vigin goddess). So in the minds of the Gospel writers, who wrote under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, the young woman's virginity was indisputable.
Kindly,
Rev. Jim Cunningham
King James Bible Ministries


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