Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 04/06/2007 00:19, JoeWallack AT aol.com wrote:
> ...
> JW:
> As I indicated, Gesenius' earlier publication asserted that the Hebrew  
> definite article did not always indicate the definite in Hebrew! He subsequently  
> corrected himself to assert that the Hebrew definite article always means the  
> definite in Hebrew. ...

Joe, do you have any evidence that Gesenius corrected himself, taken 
from his own publications before his death in 1842? Or is your statement 
more correctly that later editors of Gesenius corrected him or one 
another? This makes a difference because you make this a personal matter 
by saying "This was an embarrassing mistake for him".

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
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Website: http://www.qaya.org/