Biblical Hebrew Forum

[JoeWallack AT aol.com]

Dear  Joseph,

If you don't like Gesenius, I will give you the same  information from 
Waltke-O'Connor, Biblical Hebrew Syntax (1990) #15.5.1e,  quoting:

The article may also mark nouns definite in the imagination,  designating 
either a particular person or thing necessarily understood to  be present 
or vividly portraying someone or something whose identity is  not 
otherwise indicated . . . .  In some cases the proper English  rendering 
is indefinite:

Gen 42:23 _An interpreter_ was between  them.

Gen 18:7 He gave (it) to _a servant_.

Gen 14:13 _One who  had escaped_ came.

Num 11:27 _A young man_ came.

2 Sam 15:13 _A  messenger_ came.

This usage is also found in the expression WYHY  HYWM

1 Sam 1:4 _One day_ Elkanah came to sacrifice.

The  analogous English constructions should not mislead: all these 
occurrences,  and others like them, are definite in Hebrew.

Yours,
Harold  Holmyard

 
JW:
"In some cases the proper English rendering is indefinite:" Well this is an  
improvement over Gesenius:
 
"""Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar_ treats the definite article here as special  

but as an example of a category of usage (section #126 q-r). They say:  

"Peculiar to Hebrew is the employment of the article to denote a single  

person or thing (primarily one which is as yet unknown, and therefore  

not capable of being defined) as being present in the mind under given  

circumstances. In such cases in English the indefinite article is mostly  

used."

Note Gesenius' "In such cases in English the indefinite article is mostly  

used.". So we have "In some cases" vs. "mostly used". 
 
You would agree I assume that the Hebrew definite article always indicates  
the definite per Hebrew. An English translation of the indefinite would be 
the  
exception. If it's unlear what the related English should be than it probably 
 should be translated as definite. Only providing a general exception to the  
definite translation does not force an indefinite translation for English 
where  you think it might aply to a specific passage. You need to demonstrate 
WHY 
the  translation should be indefinite in English. 

"The article may also mark nouns definite in the imagination, designating  
either a particular person or thing necessarily understood to be present  
or vividly portraying someone or something whose identity is not  
otherwise indicated"
 
How do you apply this than to 7:14?
 
 
 
Joseph





************************************** See what's free at http://www.aol.com.