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  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "Brak" <Brak AT neo.rr.com>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect
  • Date: Thu, 17 May 2007 06:21:31 +0200


----- Original Message ----- From: "Brak" <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, May 17, 2007 1:06 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD


I had another question though
I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an
imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't explain
why it was done.
So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR

So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and that
word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?

_________

John,

it is not a qamas but a qamas qaton, thus read 'o' and not 'a'. Namely, the long vowel (holem) becomes short (qamas qaton).

Compare:

LONG <> SHORT

YI$:MOR (1Sa 2:9) becomes YI$:MFR-LFNW (Jer 5:24)

It is a mere change of vowels, the meaning of the verb remaining quite the same.
This is why in the hasar haniqud (writing without vowels) a waw is inserted in both.

This happens not only with the particle NF) you're pointing out but with other words one adds to the verb, usually by means of maqaf, in an intimate union.

Pere Porta







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