Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Brak" <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, May 17, 2007 1:06 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD


> I had another question though
> I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an
> imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't explain
> why it was done.
> So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR
>
> So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and that
> word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?

_________

John,

it is not a qamas but a qamas qaton, thus read 'o' and not 'a'. Namely, the 
long vowel (holem) becomes short (qamas qaton).

Compare:

LONG <> SHORT

YI$:MOR (1Sa 2:9) becomes YI$:MFR-LFNW (Jer 5:24)

It is a mere change of vowels, the meaning of the verb remaining quite the 
same.
This is why in the hasar haniqud (writing without vowels) a waw is inserted 
in both.

This happens not only with the particle NF) you're pointing out but with 
other words one adds to the verb, usually by means of maqaf, in an intimate 
union.

Pere Porta