Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

After my last post, and reading the responses I thought that it would be 
of benefit for me to whip out my old Hebrew Grammar book from school and 
refresh my grammar skills.

While doing such I ran into something confusing.

The book I' using is "Biblical Hebrew: An Introductory Grammar" by Page 
H. Kelly.

At the bottom of page 140 it gives a table of the forms of the Pi'el 
Imperfect for both the words MF$AL and D.FBAR
For the 1cs [first person common(mas/fem) singular] of DBR it gives ):ADAB"R

Now a the bottom of 141 is gives some textual examples of the occurrence 
of the Pi'el Imperfect. The second to the last is an example of 1cs of 
DBR coming from 2 Sam. 14:15. But in this text it has the word ):ADAB:RFH

Now according to the table on 140 the form is suppose to be ):ADAB"R for 
both mas and fem - but here in the text it has ):ADAB:RFH

So what is going on here. Did the book mess up in their table on 140, or 
is something else going on here?

On thing for sure, I'm glad I decided to review my grammar!



--

B"H
John Steven

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.