Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

Never mind!
The book explained it in another section.
When a imperfect is being used as a cohortitive a FH is added to the end 
of the word.

I had another question though
I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an 
imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't explain 
why it was done.
So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR

So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and that 
word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?


B"H
John Steven

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.


Brak wrote:

> After my last post, and reading the responses I thought that it would be 
> of benefit for me to whip out my old Hebrew Grammar book from school and 
> refresh my grammar skills.
>
> While doing such I ran into something confusing.
>
> The book I' using is "Biblical Hebrew: An Introductory Grammar" by Page 
> H. Kelly.
>
> At the bottom of page 140 it gives a table of the forms of the Pi'el 
> Imperfect for both the words MF$AL and D.FBAR
> For the 1cs [first person common(mas/fem) singular] of DBR it gives ):ADAB"R
>
> Now a the bottom of 141 is gives some textual examples of the occurrence 
> of the Pi'el Imperfect. The second to the last is an example of 1cs of 
> DBR coming from 2 Sam. 14:15. But in this text it has the word ):ADAB:RFH
>
> Now according to the table on 140 the form is suppose to be ):ADAB"R for 
> both mas and fem - but here in the text it has ):ADAB:RFH
>
> So what is going on here. Did the book mess up in their table on 140, or 
> is something else going on here?
>
> On thing for sure, I'm glad I decided to review my grammar!
>
>
>
>