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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD
  • Date: Wed, 16 May 2007 18:06:16 -0500

Never mind!
The book explained it in another section.
When a imperfect is being used as a cohortitive a FH is added to the end of the word.

I had another question though
I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't explain why it was done.
So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR

So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and that word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?


B"H
John Steven

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.


Brak wrote:

After my last post, and reading the responses I thought that it would be of benefit for me to whip out my old Hebrew Grammar book from school and refresh my grammar skills.

While doing such I ran into something confusing.

The book I' using is "Biblical Hebrew: An Introductory Grammar" by Page H. Kelly.

At the bottom of page 140 it gives a table of the forms of the Pi'el Imperfect for both the words MF$AL and D.FBAR
For the 1cs [first person common(mas/fem) singular] of DBR it gives ):ADAB"R

Now a the bottom of 141 is gives some textual examples of the occurrence of the Pi'el Imperfect. The second to the last is an example of 1cs of DBR coming from 2 Sam. 14:15. But in this text it has the word ):ADAB:RFH

Now according to the table on 140 the form is suppose to be ):ADAB"R for both mas and fem - but here in the text it has ):ADAB:RFH

So what is going on here. Did the book mess up in their table on 140, or is something else going on here?

On thing for sure, I'm glad I decided to review my grammar!








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