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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question about Pi'el Imperfect of RBD
  • Date: Wed, 16 May 2007 21:05:58 -0400

John,

I know that you are not listening to me, yet I will repeat what I said before for the possible benefit of others. You could have saved yourself some confusion, and have gained a good insight into the Pie'l structure. In my opinion.

1. Every inserted vowel (excepting A and Schwa) in the Hebrew language represents a personal pronoun. The Pi'el form contains two personal pronouns, one for the actor, and one for the beneficiary of the act. Thus, $IBER = $-I-B-E-R, means 'he [I] broke it [E]'. Some grammarians claim that the Pi'el form represents an "intensified" action form, namely, $IBER is 'he broke it to smithereens'. I don't believe this.

2. to indicate an intended act Hebrew frontally adds a fraction of the separate personal pronoun of the actor. For the full ANI it merely adds A. So A$ABER = A-$AB-E-R = ANI-$AB-E-R, is " I will break it". Now that an external personal pronoun is added, one internal personal pronoun is dropped. Hebrew is keen on minimizing the number of vowels in its words.

3. Hebrew possesses also an archaic or poetical form in which the other internal vowel (personal pronoun) migrated to the end to form A- $ABR-AH. I do not see anything "cohortative" in it. It is, in my opinion, just a quaint ancient symmetrical form for 'I broke it'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On May 16, 2007, at 3:05 PM, Brak wrote:

After my last post, and reading the responses I thought that it would be
of benefit for me to whip out my old Hebrew Grammar book from school and
refresh my grammar skills.

While doing such I ran into something confusing.

The book I' using is "Biblical Hebrew: An Introductory Grammar" by Page
H. Kelly.

At the bottom of page 140 it gives a table of the forms of the Pi'el
Imperfect for both the words MF$AL and D.FBAR
For the 1cs [first person common(mas/fem) singular] of DBR it gives ):ADAB"R

Now a the bottom of 141 is gives some textual examples of the occurrence
of the Pi'el Imperfect. The second to the last is an example of 1cs of
DBR coming from 2 Sam. 14:15. But in this text it has the word ):ADAB:RFH

Now according to the table on 140 the form is suppose to be ):ADAB"R for
both mas and fem - but here in the text it has ):ADAB:RFH

So what is going on here. Did the book mess up in their table on 140, or
is something else going on here?

On thing for sure, I'm glad I decided to review my grammar!



--

B"H
John Steven

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.
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