Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>]

Dear Harold

The point I tried to put across by quoting Hebrews 11:17 was that the 
meaning of Greek Perfect is not always clear at first glance. Your words "in 
one sense" and the very special BAGD explanation show that. From a 
grammatical point of view it is strange that we find the same verb two times 
in a parallel setting, one time as a perfect and the other time as an 
imperfect. On the basis of traditional grammar we can ask: If the first 
action was completed, why is it said that the second is uncompleted? We can 
further ask: If also the first action is uncompleted, why is the perfect 
used?
Again: It is difficult to know the force of the Perfect as long as all verbs 
have not been analysed.

Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, March 29, 2007 2:42 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] how scholars debate controversial issues


Rolf Furuli wrote:
> I am sorry that I overlooked your question. At present I cannot give you a
> definite answer regarding the meaning of Greek perfect, simply because I
> have not analysed all the verbs of the NT, and the meaning of perfect is
> more complicated than in the case of the aorist. One example of this is
> Hebrews 11:17, where the force of the perfect is difficult. When the NIV
> render the perfect "offered," this is factually wrong and contradicts its
> rendering "was about to sacrifice".

HH: In one sense the perfect verb translation is not factually wrong,
because Abraham did offer his son, but God declined the offer, even
though he had commanded it, because he was only testing Abraham. So he
stopped the proceedings, but Abraham passed the test and had been in the
process of putting his son to death, obeying God.

> The NWT is factually correct and there
> is no contradiction between the rendering of the two verbs, but one can
> discuss whether "as good as offered up" is the real force of the perfect. 
> As
> for Hebrew NT´s, the UBS translation renders both Greek verbs with a 
> QATAL,
> while Delitzsch´s translation renders the Greek perfect with  HYH +
> participle, and the Greek imperfect with Hebrew YIQTOL
>
> NIV: By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered (PERFECT) Isaac as a
> sacrifice. He who received the promises was about to sacrifice (IMPERFECT)
> his one and only son
>
> NWT: NIV: By faith Abraham, when he was tested, as good as offered up
> (PERFECT) Isaac, and the man that had gladly received the promises 
> attempted
> to offer up (IMPERFECT) (his) only-begotten (son).

HH: There are other theories about the perfect verb in Heb 11:17. The
BAGD lexicon, under PROSFERW, indicates that the perfect in Heb 11:17
denotes what "stands written" in Scripture. They refer the reader to J.
H. Moulton, A Grammar of the NT, vol. 1, Prolegomena, pp. 129, 142, 238.
In spiritual terms, the act of Abraham continues to have value and
exists as a spiritual feat of faith testified to by Scripture. Abraham,
who still lives, has done this.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

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