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  • From: "Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] how scholars debate controversial issues
  • Date: Wed, 28 Mar 2007 22:13:28 +0100

Dear Harold,

I am sorry that I overlooked your question. At present I cannot give you a definite answer regarding the meaning of Greek perfect, simply because I have not analysed all the verbs of the NT, and the meaning of perfect is more complicated than in the case of the aorist. One example of this is Hebrews 11:17, where the force of the perfect is difficult. When the NIV render the perfect "offered," this is factually wrong and contradicts its rendering "was about to sacrifice". The NWT is factually correct and there is no contradiction between the rendering of the two verbs, but one can discuss whether "as good as offered up" is the real force of the perfect. As for Hebrew NT´s, the UBS translation renders both Greek verbs with a QATAL, while Delitzsch´s translation renders the Greek perfect with HYH + participle, and the Greek imperfect with Hebrew YIQTOL

NIV: By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered (PERFECT) Isaac as a sacrifice. He who received the promises was about to sacrifice (IMPERFECT) his one and only son

NWT: NIV: By faith Abraham, when he was tested, as good as offered up (PERFECT) Isaac, and the man that had gladly received the promises attempted to offer up (IMPERFECT) (his) only-begotten (son).


----- Original Message ----- From: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, March 28, 2007 9:33 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] how scholars debate controversial issues


Rolf Furuli wrote:
Dear Harold,

I have a few comments to your post.


I don't remember you answering my question about the distinction between
the aorist and the perfect in Greek, but I did not have anything to do
with the post below.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard


Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo





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