Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>]

Dear Harold,

I am sorry that I overlooked your question. At present I cannot give you a 
definite answer regarding the meaning of Greek perfect, simply because I 
have not analysed all the verbs of the NT, and the meaning of perfect is 
more complicated than in the case of the aorist. One example of this is 
Hebrews 11:17, where the force of the perfect is difficult. When the NIV 
render the perfect "offered," this is factually wrong and contradicts its 
rendering "was about to sacrifice". The NWT is factually correct and there 
is no contradiction between the rendering of the two verbs, but one can 
discuss whether "as good as offered up" is the real force of the perfect. As 
for Hebrew NT´s, the UBS translation renders both Greek verbs with a QATAL, 
while Delitzsch´s translation renders the Greek perfect with  HYH + 
participle, and the Greek imperfect with Hebrew YIQTOL

NIV: By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered (PERFECT) Isaac as a 
sacrifice. He who received the promises was about to sacrifice (IMPERFECT) 
his one and only son

NWT: NIV: By faith Abraham, when he was tested, as good as offered up 
(PERFECT) Isaac, and the man that had gladly received the promises attempted 
to offer up (IMPERFECT) (his) only-begotten (son).


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, March 28, 2007 9:33 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] how scholars debate controversial issues


> Rolf Furuli wrote:
> > Dear Harold,
> >
> > I have a few comments to your post.
>
> I don't remember you answering my question about the distinction between
> the aorist and the perfect in Greek, but I did not have anything to do
> with the post below.
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
> >

Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo