Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kgraham0938 AT comcast.net]

The 2ms suffix should be taken as an object to the participle.  Suffixes on 
nouns are possesive and on verbs they are objective.

That is why it should be translated "those who bless you."  By the way it is 
a piel participle masculine plural construct with a 2ms suffix.

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: "Chris Gummer" <chrisgumms AT hotmail.com> 

> Hi All, 
> 
> 
> 
> In Genesis 12:3, M:BFR:KEYKA, appears to be often translated as "those who 
> bless you". 
> 
> 
> 
> However, all I see is a participle form of BRK with a possessive 2ms 
> suffix. 
> 
> 
> 
> What is the correct parsing and why is it translated as "those who bless 
> you"? 
> 
> 
> 
> Thanks, 
> 
> Chris Gummer. 
> 
> _______________________________________________ 
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> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org 
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew 
>From davidfentonism AT aim.com  Mon Jan 22 12:50:57 2007
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Son of man vs. Enosh
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Thank you, Peter. It sheds light on the issue for me. If I may ask, might it 
be read as indicating Enosh (the frail man) profaned Y--H by his particular 
use of His Name as opposed to a proper 'calling' upon His Name? Thanks again, 
Peter.
 
 David Fenton
 NYC
 Fulfillment
 CafeSoy.com
    
 -----Original Message-----
 From: peter AT qaya.org
 To: davidfentonism AT aim.com
 Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
 Sent: Sun, 21 Jan 2007 2:22 PM
 Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Son of man vs. Enosh
 
  On 21/01/2007 18:07, davidfentonism AT aim.com wrote: 
 > Can anyone shed light on the difference in translation relative to Gen 
 > 4:26? It appears to say in the Hebrew that, 'Enosh began to profane [the 
 > name of] Y--H Elohiym.' However, it is alternatively read by Ibn Ezra and 
 > Sephorno (also seen in the LXX) as, 'Enosh began to call upon the name of 
 > the LORD.' 
 > > To clarify, there are two verb forms in the Hebrew here, HWXL from XLL 
 > > and LQR) from QR), as well as the noun $M "name". The first verb 
 > > commonly means "profane" but also has the sense "begin". While the 
 > > translation could possibly be "he profaned to call on the name of YHWH", 
 > > it makes a lot more sense to read "he began to call on the name of 
 > > YHWH". 
 
 > Further, is it possible that "men" could actually sanctify the Name 
 > (Kiddush Hashem) or profane the Name (Chillul Hashem) of the Living G-d? 
 > Other than idolatry, how might "men" be said to do or have done either of 
 > these with respect to the Tetragrammaton? 
 > > As a Christian I have no problem with praying "hallowed be thy name". 
 > > Surely the point of hallowing or sanctifying God's name is not that 
 > > humans can change the status of the name, but that by obeying the 
 > > commandment not to misuse it, and encouraging others to do the same, we 
 > > can preserve its holiness - or by disobedience and idolatry, we can 
 > > profane it i.e. cause it to be treated as something common and unholy. 
 
 -- Peter Kirk 
 E-mail: peter AT qaya.org 
 Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/ 
 Website: http://www.qaya.org/ 
 
   
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