Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 21/01/2007 18:07, davidfentonism AT aim.com wrote:
>  Can anyone shed light on the difference in translation relative to Gen 4:26? 
> It appears to say in the Hebrew that, 'Enosh began to profane [the name of] 
> Y--H Elohiym.' However, it is alternatively read by Ibn Ezra and Sephorno 
> (also seen in the LXX) as, 'Enosh began to call upon the name of the LORD.'
>     
>   
To clarify, there are two verb forms in the Hebrew here, HWXL from XLL 
and LQR) from QR), as well as the noun $M "name". The first verb 
commonly means "profane" but also has the sense "begin". While the 
translation could possibly be "he profaned to call on the name of YHWH", 
it makes a lot more sense to read "he began to call on the name of YHWH".

>   Further, is it possible that "men" could actually sanctify the Name (Kiddush Hashem) 
> or profane the Name (Chillul Hashem) of the Living G-d? Other than idolatry, how might 
> "men" be said to do or have done either of these with respect to the Tetragrammaton?
>  
>   
As a Christian I have no problem with praying "hallowed be thy name". 
Surely the point of hallowing or sanctifying God's name is not that 
humans can change the status of the name, but that by obeying the 
commandment not to misuse it, and encouraging others to do the same, we 
can preserve its holiness - or by disobedience and idolatry, we can 
profane it i.e. cause it to be treated as something common and unholy.

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/