Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Blankinship, Benjamin" <bla26 AT co.henrico.va.us>]

> > Do you assume, as I do, that Jesus would have spoken to Saul in 
> > Aramaic, but Saul would have repeated the story either in 
> > Greek or Latin?
> >
> >   
> No. And as a result I can give the matter some relevance to 
> this forum. 
> Paul was "a Hebrew of Hebrews", probably meaning he was a 
> Hebrew speaker. Acts 21:40 specifically states that he spoke 
> to the crowd in Jerusalem in Hebrew, using the Greek words 
> THi hEBRAIDI DIALEKTWi which can only be understood as a 
> reference to the Hebrew language. There is no justification 
> for the occasional translation "Aramaic". See also 22:2 which 
> states that the crowd became quiet when heard Paul speaking 
> Hebrew, perhaps because of their reverence for the "holy" language.
> 
> As for Jesus' words to Saul (9:4), I would expect them also 
> to have been in Hebrew, but perhaps Aramaic - or perhaps not 
> actually in any specific language as this was some kind of vision.

Oh, my mistake, I was thinking of Acts 26, where Saul tells the same
story to Agrippa.

So, Saul was telling the story in Hebrew, but Luke wrote it in Greek. Do
you assume that Luke translated "Yeshua" to "Jesus" in the act of
writing the story out?

-- 
Ben