Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Revdpickrel AT wmconnect.com]

In a message dated 9/12/2006 10:44:37 AM Central Daylight Time, 
bla26 AT co.henrico.va.us writes:


> > > [Acts 21:40]
> > > Why is this not Yehshua? instead  Iesous?
> > 
> > Are you asking why Yeshua is rendered Iesus in Greek and 
> > Latin, thus "Jesus" in English etc.?
> 
> Do you assume, as I do, that Jesus would have spoken to Saul in Aramaic,
> but Saul would have repeated the story either in Greek or Latin?
> 
> -- 
> Ben B
> 

Hi Ben,

Surprisingly, No.  I always assumed that Jesus would have spoken to Paul in 
the most common language of that day, Greek first.  I guessing that Paul 
wrote 
normally in Greek with the exception being when he wrote directly to the 
Hebrew, and then he would have written in Hebrew.  May be it would be like 
today, 
English outside the home and native tongue in the home.

Doug.
Rev. Doug Pickrel, Litt.D.
Tejas Valley
San Antonio, Texas