Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 12/09/2006 16:44, Blankinship, Benjamin wrote:
> > > [Acts 21:40]
> > > Why is this not Yehshua? instead  Iesous?
> > >       
> > Are you asking why Yeshua is rendered Iesus in Greek and 
> > Latin, thus "Jesus" in English etc.?
> >     
>
> Do you assume, as I do, that Jesus would have spoken to Saul in Aramaic,
> but Saul would have repeated the story either in Greek or Latin?
>
>   
No. And as a result I can give the matter some relevance to this forum. 
Paul was "a Hebrew of Hebrews", probably meaning he was a Hebrew 
speaker. Acts 21:40 specifically states that he spoke to the crowd in 
Jerusalem in Hebrew, using the Greek words THi hEBRAIDI DIALEKTWi which 
can only be understood as a reference to the Hebrew language. There is 
no justification for the occasional translation "Aramaic". See also 22:2 
which states that the crowd became quiet when heard Paul speaking 
Hebrew, perhaps because of their reverence for the "holy" language.

As for Jesus' words to Saul (9:4), I would expect them also to have been 
in Hebrew, but perhaps Aramaic - or perhaps not actually in any specific 
language as this was some kind of vision.

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/