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  • From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] oral law
  • Date: Fri, 23 Jun 2006 17:16:23 -0500

You can't completely separate theology from the Torah. I am looking at the Hebrew in this verse. You can slaughter the animals as I have commanded. Where else in the Torah text did G-d command the details of how exactly to slaughter?

Another example is Tefillin. The written text tells us which texts to put into the Tefillin, but it doesn't tell us how to make them, how to tie them, and more.



But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then writes that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the details are not written in the written Torah, don't you agree that G-d had to have commanded it somewhere else (as He says), besides in the written text?


Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded this"? I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the Hebrew actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather than a self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get back to Hebrew rather than theology!






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