Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 12/09/2005 07:19, Vadim Cherny wrote:

> ...
>
>
> We discussed this issue with issue a short while ago, and I proved
> decisively that Hebrew uses tenses absolutely correctly, in standard sense,
> but allows, like Russian, deictic centre shifts. The theory of tenseless
> Hebrew makes sense only for people who believe that all world uses tenses as
> English and German speakers.
>  

Vadim, whatever you may consider you have proved, in the light of recent 
discussions, you can only claimed to have "proved decisively" if your 
results have been published in a peer reviewed academic journal and 
gained wide acceptance. And for that to happen you would have to go into 
several linguistic issues in considerably more depth than you have done 
on this list. Otherwise I think the best that you can claim is to have 
an alternative hypothesis or theory.

> Besides, as I also noted, how many yiqtols elsewhere are translated with
> present continuous?
>  

Quite a lot. Rolf probably has figures for this. But you will find that 
only a small proportion of YIQTOLs in the Hebrew Bible are translated as 
non-modal futures.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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