Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 22/08/2005 15:53, Karl Randolph wrote:

> Peter:
>
> In Leviticus 20:17 is the XSD connected with the incest or 
> the punishment? If with the incest then yes, it refers to a 
> negative, but if with the punishment, then it is undeserved 
> good favor to banish them when they deserve death.
>  

Well, the first clause in this verse starts at the beginning and 
continues until XESED HU', with 'ASHER introducing a clause subordinate 
to this one. The sentence structure in fact seems to state that it is 
the man who is XESED, but it could be interpreted that the whole 
situation is so descibed. But I don't see that the meaning could a 
description of what follows, which is separated off by the VAV 
conjunction attached to a QATAL verb (i.e. WEQATAL) which always 
indicates a new clause.

> In Proverbs 14:34 I understand as "Justice exults a nation, 
> but undeserved good favor of peoples errs." The root meaning 
> of X+) is to miss the mark, to err from which the theological 
> meaning of sin is a derivative. (The New Testament use of 
> hAMARTIA is a parallel to this use, a direct copy of Hebrew 
> usage.) This is one of the cases where I think translating 
> using the theological understanding errs.
>  

Well, I suppose this is possible. But if so it would I think be the only 
place (other than Lev. 20:17) where XESED is viewed in a negative light.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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