Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Karl,

> In Leviticus 20:17 is the XSD connected with the incest or
> the punishment? If with the incest then yes, it refers to a
> negative, but if with the punishment, then it is undeserved
> good favor to banish them when they deserve death.
>
> In Proverbs 14:34 I understand as "Justice exults a nation,
> but undeserved good favor of peoples errs." The root meaning
> of X+) is to miss the mark, to err from which the theological
> meaning of sin is a derivative. (The New Testament use of
> hAMARTIA is a parallel to this use, a direct copy of Hebrew
> usage.) This is one of the cases where I think translating
> using the theological understanding errs.

Hh: The problem with this translation is that XSD 
is a masculine noun and the form X+)T is also a 
noun. But even if X+)T were viewed as some 
strange verb form, it would have to be feminine 
and so would not agree with the masculine 
subject. Karl, you need to accept the findings of 
regular lexicons on such basic topics where there 
is widespread agreement. Peter is right that 
there is a second meaning for XSD and your denial 
of this fact drives you into strange 
interpretations. Here is the HAL information on 
the second meaning of XSD:

I h‡esed‰: I h‡sd‰: JArm. h‡isd‰a¦}, Syr. 
h‡es/zda¦, CPArm. (only pl.) h‡sdyn, Mnd. h‡yzd‰} 
(MdD 142a, Brockelmann Syr. Gramm §49); Arm. lw. 
Wagner 105: -1. shame Lv 2017 Pr 1434; -2. abuse 
Sir 4122 (Marg.) = Sir, h‡sd‰ym 1QM iii 6 (alt. 
II). Ý

HH: The noun is related to a verb:

I h‡sd‰: MHb. pi., JArm. pa., JArm. qal: to be 
ashamed, Sam. (Ben-H. 2:464) and Syr. CPArm. Mnd. 
(MdD 151a) slander; Arb. h‡asada and Tigr. Wb. 
74b h‡asda to envy; MHb. h‡sûd‰ cast suspicion 
upon; ? Arm. lw. Wagner 105-6 :: II h‡sd‰, II 
h‡esed‰, Schulthess Homonyme 31f (:: Nöldeke Neue 
Beitr. 93).
		pi: impf. y§h‡ased‰k‰a¦: to bring 
shame Pr 2510 Sir 142 (cj. h‡sd‰t×w Smend :: 
Dahood, Greg. 43:71). Ý
        Der. I h‡esed‰.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard





> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
>
> >  On 21/08/2005 04:12, Karl Randolph wrote:
> >
> >  > ... So where does it have an opposite meaning? The concordance I
> >  > use lists three possible times, Leviticus 20:17, Proverbs 14:34,
> >  > 25:10, but each makes sense using the above meaning, so where is
> >  > the opposite meaning?
> >  >
> >  >
> >  >
> >  Karl, I really don't see how you can consider that incest between a
> >  brother and sister, in Lev 20:17, can be described as anything like
> >  "(undeserved) good favor", or how any kind of positive evaluation
> >  of that behaviour is either possible in the wider context or is
> >  compatible with "They must be cut off before the eyes of the
> >  people". This is a clear and unambiguous negative sense or use of
> >  the word. Similarly for the more general "sin" in Proverbs 14:34.
> ...
> >  -- Peter Kirk
> >  peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> >  peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> >  http://www.qaya.org/
>
> --
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