Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Peter:

In Leviticus 20:17 is the XSD connected with the incest or 
the punishment? If with the incest then yes, it refers to a 
negative, but if with the punishment, then it is undeserved 
good favor to banish them when they deserve death.

In Proverbs 14:34 I understand as "Justice exults a nation, 
but undeserved good favor of peoples errs." The root meaning 
of X+) is to miss the mark, to err from which the theological 
meaning of sin is a derivative. (The New Testament use of 
hAMARTIA is a parallel to this use, a direct copy of Hebrew 
usage.) This is one of the cases where I think translating 
using the theological understanding errs.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>

> 
> On 21/08/2005 04:12, Karl Randolph wrote:
> 
> > ... So where does it have an opposite meaning? The concordance I 
> > use lists three possible times, Leviticus 20:17, Proverbs 14:34, 
> > 25:10, but each makes sense using the above meaning, so where is 
> > the opposite meaning?
> >
> >
> >
> Karl, I really don't see how you can consider that incest between a 
> brother and sister, in Lev 20:17, can be described as anything like 
> "(undeserved) good favor", or how any kind of positive evaluation 
> of that behaviour is either possible in the wider context or is 
> compatible with "They must be cut off before the eyes of the 
> people". This is a clear and unambiguous negative sense or use of 
> the word. Similarly for the more general "sin" in Proverbs 14:34.
> 
...
> 
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/

-- 
___________________________________________________________
Sign-up for Ads Free at Mail.com
http://promo.mail.com/adsfreejump.htm