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  • From: "Heard, Christopher" <Christopher.Heard AT pepperdine.edu>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is.45:7 God created evil?
  • Date: Thu, 4 Aug 2005 20:51:07 -0700

Dear Harold,

Citing lexicons is all fine and good, but how do the editors of HALOT, BDB, etc. _know_ that the Chronicler is using &+N as a personal name? Clearly, the authors of Numbers and 2 Kings used _exactly the same word_ and _nobody_ thinks they were using it as a proper noun. _Why_ should we think the Chronicler is using a proper noun? That may be the case, but what are the _reasons_ to believe it?

Best wishes,

Chris

On Aug 4, 2005, at 6:52 PM, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:

Dear Chris,


In the quotation below and the longer text of your post, you are
making theological claims, not exegetical or linguistic ones.


HH: Here's a linguistic one. This is an entry for
&+N ("Satan") from The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon
of the Old Testament:

-3. sía¦tˆa¦n as a personal name, without the
article 1C 21:1; clearly also a celestial figure
who incited David to make a census, see Rudolph
Chr. 142f; THAT 2:823 (with bibliography).

HH: The BAG lexicon has under &+N: "as n. pr.
Satan 1 Ch 21:1 (interp. 2 Sam 24:1) . . . ."

HH: It would be helpful to see how the word was
used in intertestamental literature, but I do not
have the resources with me.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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--
R. Christopher Heard
Assistant Professor of Religion
Seaver Fellow in Religion
Pepperdine University
Malibu, California 90263-4352
http://faculty.pepperdine.edu/cheard
http://www.iTanakh.org
http://www.semioticsandexegesis.info





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