Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chris Gummer" <chrisgumms AT hotmail.com>]

Hi Martin,

1. The hatef-patah is only under the Aleph, as it can not take the vocal
shewa. However, when placing a vocal shewa under a yod, the full shewa is
fine. So I wouldn't view it as a change, as both intances represent vocal
shewas.

2.1 - No, sorry that is just what I have in my grammar.
2.2 - Not sure. However, were those not substitutes for YHWH and even used
for others beside YHWH? Therefore, any such reverance would only extend to
the name YHWH?
2.3 - No idea, sorry I wasn't even aware there were cases.

Martin my apologies I can't give a more substantiated discussion on this,
but as I said I'm a complete beginner! :)

Regards,
Chris.

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Martin Arhelger" <arhelger AT gmx.de>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, July 17, 2005 2:19 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Questions about YHWH


>
> Hello Chris,
>
> thanks for your answers. You wrote:
>
> > 1) The hatef-patah occurs as gutterals
> > can not take the shewa. However, the
> > shewa is fine under the yod.
>
> It is right that gutturals generally do not take Shewa. But what does this
> help here? The Hatef-patah was not meant to be with the Yod but with the
> Aleph of ADoNaY. I am not aware that the vocals of the Qere-reading were
> ever changed to fit the Ketiv-consonants.
>
>
> > 2) The Jewish scribes didn't like
> > putting anything above YHWH.
>
> 1) I have never heard this explanation. Can you give references in
> literature?
>
> 2) Why had the Jewish scripes no scruples to put a Holem in words like
> ELoHiM or ADoNaY ?
>
> 3) Why are there instances where YHWH was written WITH Holem?
>
> Martin Arhelger
>
>
>
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