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  • From: Alexander Oldernes <alexander AT oldernes.no>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Questions about YHWH
  • Date: Sat, 16 Jul 2005 13:17:39 +0200

2)
According to http://www.divinename.net/
Frequently Asked Questions: "A5- Did the name Jehovah come from a wrong reading which mixed together the consonants of the Tetragram with the vowels of the word Adonay ?":

QUOTE:

The word Yahowah has never been used in any Bibles. The (fanciful) grammatical pattern which involves a change a to e has never existed. In actual fact, before 1100 CE , the Tetragram has been pointed with only the two vowels e, a of the Aramaic word Shema which means "The Name".The vowel o appeared, after 1100 CE , owing to the influence of the reading of the word Adonay.

Paul Drach, a rabbi converted to Catholicism, explained in his work De l'harmonie entre l'église et la synagogue (Of the Harmony between the Church and the Synagogue) published in 1842, why it was logical that the pronunciation Yehova, which was in agreement with the beginning of all the theophoric names, was the authentic pronunciation, contrary to the form of Samaritan origin Yahvé. He also demonstrated the delirious way of the transmutation of vowels a, o, a of the word Adonay into e, o, a, because this hypothetical grammatical rule (and against nature concerning a qere / kethib) was already running down with the word Èlohim which keeps its three vowels è, o, i without needing to change them in e, o, i.

END OF QUOTE

Alexander Oldernes


From: "Martin Arhelger" <arhelger AT gmx.de>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, July 16, 2005 6:22 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Questions about YHWH



It has been generally accepted (and I think rightly so) that the original
spelling of YHWH has been YaHWe. Later the punctuation of ADoNaY has been
added. (Misspelling of this led to the reading YeHoWaH) as in similar
cases
of Qere Perpetuum.

Now my questions:

1) Why is a Shewa below the Yod of YHWH? If it is to be read as ADoNaY there
should be a Hatef-patah below the Yod but no Shewa.

2) Why is the Holem often lacking, for example in Codex Aleppo (and also in
BHS, following this manuscript) in Gen 15:1?

I know that questions about YHWH have often been discussed on this list. But
I am not aware that my two questions have been answered.

Thanks for helps !

Martin Arhelger, Germany



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