Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Chris:

I read this with an unpointed text, so there is a bit of analysis needed to 
glean a meaning of this formation.

The Qal meaning of this verb, as far as I can tell, is to be clear, as in 
clean, considered innocent. The waw can also signal a contrast, translated in 
English as “but”.

I translate the section “but he who considers himself innocent he ( YHWH ) 
will not clear” or “but the one declaring his innocence ...” (functionally 
the 
same basic idea). In this reading, I consider the passages indicating that 
all people are guilty before God, and when one considers himself innocent, 
that is ipso facto evidence of his guilt (at the very least, pride which God 
hates).

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: wattswestmaas <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
> 
> I am really having trouble understanding this construction.  Comparisons
> with the three other scriptures where the first word (NaKeH) is used do not
> help me to feel my way through to a solution.  the second word is not a
> problem (he will not be GUILTLESS) this is clear even to me.
> 
> How can this first word be changed from its clear meaning of: 'guiltless,
> 'pure', 'clean' into "Guilty"??? What makes this more baffling is the fact
> that the modern hebrew definition of this biblical word (as given by
> evan-shoshan) is 'to purify, to cleanse, to purge' (TiHeR);  and to acquit,
> to exonerate, to vindicate. (ZiCaR) and he lumps it with all the other Piels
> which express the expected meaning.
> 
> I know that the answer is obvious to most of you on the board, but I could
> not even begin to figure out where in the grammar books to look up since I
> don't have the foggiest clue under what grammatical speciality this
> construction would be indexed or viewed.
> 
> Thankyou, Chris, Ireland.
-- 
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