Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Trevor Peterson <abuian AT access4less.net>]

kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote:
> How are the lameds being used LAYHWH W:LAMELEK.
>
> In other words is David recieving the same worship as YHWH?

Well, to answer your first question, I think both prepositions are 
functioning more or less the same way. As for the second question, 
that's not quite as clear simply from the grammar. The people did 
something, and they did it to both objects. I don't see where that needs 
to imply anything more than that both received honor. The verb used here 
is often translated "worship," but the meaning of our English word is 
probably a bit too narrow. It refers first to the act of prostrating 
before someone, which clearly was done before human rulers enough that 
it didn't have to be an acknowledgement of divinity. But in any case, 
the question is to be answered in the semantics of the verb, not the 
force of the prepositions.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics