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  • From: Trevor Peterson <abuian AT access4less.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question
  • Date: Wed, 16 Feb 2005 17:59:47 -0500

kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote:
How are the lameds being used LAYHWH W:LAMELEK.

In other words is David recieving the same worship as YHWH?

Well, to answer your first question, I think both prepositions are functioning more or less the same way. As for the second question, that's not quite as clear simply from the grammar. The people did something, and they did it to both objects. I don't see where that needs to imply anything more than that both received honor. The verb used here is often translated "worship," but the meaning of our English word is probably a bit too narrow. It refers first to the act of prostrating before someone, which clearly was done before human rulers enough that it didn't have to be an acknowledgement of divinity. But in any case, the question is to be answered in the semantics of the verb, not the force of the prepositions.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics




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