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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question

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  • From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
  • Date: Thu, 17 Feb 2005 07:26:00 -0800

On 2/17/05 4:42 AM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:

> This may be true, this may be the only place in the Bible where
> hishtaxawe is used with both a king and YHWH as indirect object of the
> one verb.

Yes, but I found one instance where when YHWH and MLK are co-referential.

Zech. 14:17
whyh )$r l)-y(lh m)t m$pxwt h)rC )l-yrw$lM lh$txwt lmlK yhwh cb)wt

This, however, is not relevant to the problem under consideration.


greetings,
Clay Bartholomew







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