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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
- To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question
- Date: Thu, 17 Feb 2005 07:26:00 -0800
On 2/17/05 4:42 AM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:
> This may be true, this may be the only place in the Bible where
> hishtaxawe is used with both a king and YHWH as indirect object of the
> one verb.
Yes, but I found one instance where when YHWH and MLK are co-referential.
Zech. 14:17
whyh )$r l)-y(lh m)t m$pxwt h)rC )l-yrw$lM lh$txwt lmlK yhwh cb)wt
This, however, is not relevant to the problem under consideration.
greetings,
Clay Bartholomew
-
[b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
kgraham0938, 02/16/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question, Trevor Peterson, 02/16/2005
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Karl Randolph, 02/16/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Martin Shields, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question,
Peter Kirk, 02/17/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question, C. Stirling Bartholomew, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question,
Peter Kirk, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question,
Maurice A. O'Sullivan, 02/17/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:20 question, Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Martin Shields, 02/17/2005
-
Re: [b-hebrew] 1 Chron 29:30 question,
Yigal Levin, 02/17/2005
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