Biblical Hebrew Forum

["C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

On 2/7/05 6:01 AM, "George F Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com> wrote:

>>  Do you take cb( as the underlying verb?

> No.  It could not be from CB( since the only distinctive characteristic
> of a gutteral verb is that the gutteral does not take dagesh (and, of
> course, the pointing).  All consonants are present.  It must be the
> Hithpael of YCB.

I am out of my depth here and must lean on the secondary literature. If what
you say is correct then E.Dhorme, M.Pope, RSV, NRSV, NAB, NJB ... have
somehow gone astray by reading CB( at this point. Dhorme makes a comment
that there are other places where a final ( "falls out" in verses 13 and 15.
The details of Dhorme's argument are beyond me ... perhaps someone who has
him on their shelf could comment. M.Pope doesn't say much about this but his
translation supports the CB( reading.

Thanks for all the help on this. Now if I could only figure out what the LXX
is doing here ... seems to be a confused mess.


greetings,
Clay Bartholomew