Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Vadim:

In a quick scan of the 62 verses where KMW or BMW are found, I did not notice 
once where they were used in other than the construct state. And as Peter 
Kirk mentioned, the construct state shortens the vowel under the prefix to a 
shewa.

Of the 57 verses where LMW is found, the vast majority have the LMW in the 
ordinate state (did I name it right?), hence the vowel under the prefix L- 
will be lengthened. This is a grammatical feature, apart from meaning.

Within Biblical Hebrew itself, there is no clue that the -MW suffix existed 
as other than a unit which, from its use, can be for a singular even though 
it is more often used for a plural. A speculated etymology may be 
interesting, but how it is actually used in the text in more important than a 
speculated etymology.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Vadim Cherny" <vadim_lv AT center-tv.net> 
>
> 
> But, anyway, the question boils down to the meaning - and, essentially,
> etymology of lamo.
> 
> Vadim Cherny
-- 
___________________________________________________________
Sign-up for Ads Free at Mail.com
http://promo.mail.com/adsfreejump.htm