Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

----- Original Message -----
From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
> Look at 2 Kings 1:1, 3:5,7, 8:20, 22 and so forth: these are examples of
vassal nations rebelling against their overlord. P$( in these verses clearly
refers to rebellion, and it is often used of man's rebellion against God.
(It might mean "crime" in modern Hebrew, but that's irrelevant to this
verse.)
>

Karl, while it is true that the verb Pa$a(  b... means "rebel against", it
can be used to rebel against either a human overlord or God. The noun Pe$a(,
however, means "crime". It is often paralelled by X+) "sin", because the
Bible is a book about the raelationship between God and man, and to commit a
crime against God is to sin, but it still means "crime". Gen. 50:17, or for
that matter Amos 1 and 2, certainly have nothing to do with rebellion,
unless you are to consider any crime a rebellion.

Yigal