Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Clay,

> A good suggestion. The LXX,  Codex B,  shows a relative pronoun followed by
> a finite verb 3rd person singular. Codex A has a functional equivalent:
>  the masculine singular nominative article + participle. In both manuscripts
> it is clear that )nky is **not** considered the subject of the verb h(lyty.
>
> Judg. 6:8  ... )nky h(lyty )tkM mmcryM ...
>
> The syntax of in the LXX suggests that )nky is outside of the following
> clause. This certainly permits (not requires) )nky to be a fronted
> constituent functioning pragmatically as a focus marker.
>
> I am not following any particular theory here, I am being eclectic :-)

HH: The Greek translators just rendered the Hebrew with the emphasis 
they felt the pronoun )NKY required. This involved the insertion of a 
relative particle and also a linking verb for it, but they were 
trying to represent the Hebrew where the pronoun is obviously the 
subject of the verb. The translation I offered in English, without 
looking at the Greek, did the same thing. It is somewhat unavoidable 
sometimes, the structure of Greek and English being slightly 
different than that of Hebrew:

Judg. 6:8 he sent them a prophet, who said,  "This is what the LORD, 
the God of Israel, says: It is I who brought you up out of Egypt, out 
of the land of slavery.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard